What would happen in the scenario where a show on a TV network played a tune during the show that another person owned? Let's say that the show was broadcast a few years after the music was composed, the person could prove ownership of the tune, and the tune is fairly obscure (i.e. unlikely to be immediately recognized by the general public).

Would could be done?

  • we need the jurisdiction. I believe in the US, the TV network would be required to pay the mechanical royalties to both performer and composer, plus potential infringement charges. I would think it would be extremely unlikely to find such an occurrence at least in developed nations. The penalties are onerous. – Tiger Guy Jun 19 '20 at 18:22
  • @Tiger Guy Let's say it's a US show. – Arj Jun 19 '20 at 23:48

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