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It is well-known that during a divorce (UK) Courts can over-rule 'Pre-nupitals' for whatever reason. If on the other hand, before the Wedding any property belonging only to one partner is protected in a Trust purely involving the (pre-marriage) family of that partner (i.e. to protect it from a divorce and any other claims against it), is there any set of circumstances which can cause the divorce Court to completely overrule the Trust and declare it as 'null and void' (e.g. deliberate deprivation of wealth)?

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