A house on a landlocked tract (Property A) in North Carolina is for sale by realtor. Property A is accessed from the state road by a driveway, the end of which is constructed on an easement granted across an adjacent property (Property B). The easement is worded to allow the owners of Property A to
pass and repass on foot, vehicles, or otherwise through, including the construction of necessary utilities for lands of [owners of Property A]... said easement hereby conveyed accordingly facilitating access usage of land lying between the [owners of Property A] and the access land of the [owners of Property B].
Does the seller of Property A (or their real estate agent) have the right to place a "for sale" sign on Property B advertising the sale of Property A, without the permission of the owners of Property B? The sign in question is located on Property B, next to the end of the driveway leading to Property A, but both within the easement described above, and within the right-of-way for the state road.
(In other words, the sign is exactly where you would expect such a sign to be, and, this being a rural area, there is no issue with anyone being confused about which property is for sale. The question is just about whether the easement or some aspect of state law gives the seller a right to place the sign without the permission of the owner of the other property the easement runs over.)
I'd be interested in whether this easement, or any aspect of state law, has any effect here. I've done a little research on both, but haven't turned up anything relevant.