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Story 1: A man own a house. His girlfriend had recently moved in and he wanted her out. She refused and called the police, claiming that the man committed violence against her. Also he reported that the woman was actually harassing him, the man was still immediately removed from the house and he had to pay a huge amount of lawyer fee before moving his ex-girlfriend out. The woman did not even provide actual evidence on the "violence".

Story 2: In a formal organizational event, everyone dressed formally, except one woman.

Man: "I am not sure if you are dressing like in a night-club."

The woman reported it as "sexual harassment" to the supervisor and the man is seriously punished. But if a woman said something similar to a man and the man reported it to the supervisor, it would be usually ignored as "not a big deal", to my limited knowledge.


Thanks for the comments! From the legal document of John Doe v.s. Rhodes College 2019, it is clear that the college's administrators took the words from female witnesses (including the victim) but not from the male witnesses, at least in this case:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=GWa3XroMv5M&list=PL9cOEC1M44Dw65Td2FMCLheiUWS-iQnHO&index=2&t=0s


I hear similar stories every once a while.

So, is the woman privileged (legally or statistically) in a conflict between a man and a woman, either inside an organization or in the court?

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    The second story is not related to legal issues at all, and the part of your question about "[conflict] inside an organization" isn't, either. – SJuan76 Aug 26 '20 at 21:10
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    Your English is good enough and you explain it correctly. But the second story does not involve law enforcement, judge, or lawyers. So it is not a legal question. And of course, both stories risk being uncorroborated, lacking crucial details and/or anechdotical. – SJuan76 Aug 26 '20 at 21:16
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    @SJuan76 is providing you bad information. A report of sexual harassment to an employer is pretty obviously a legal issue in the United States, implicating Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Same for a claim that men and women are treated differently when reporting harassment. The short answer to the question is that legally, women are not privileged in the way you're asking about. Statistically, I couldn't say one way or another. – bdb484 Aug 26 '20 at 21:42
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    These are entirely different things! Once we have story 1, which has possibly misconduct of police acting on the alledged violence and not acting on the trespass by the woman, and only a civil case. Story 2 is a title VII of the CRA violation in employment. The "believe all women" behavior of some institutions (especially colleges) has lead to quite some lawsuits under "Title IX" (which is pretty much followup to the Title VII of the CRA) – Trish Aug 27 '20 at 17:39
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    I had linked them in your other question, but sure: have Uncivil Law read and comment on some for you: youtube.com/playlist?list=PL9cOEC1M44Dw65Td2FMCLheiUWS-iQnHO – Trish Aug 27 '20 at 19:13

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