Just doing some reading on human rights law, particularly article 9 and the case of R(on the application of Playfoot) v Millais School Governing Body (2007).

I wanted to know if a specific manifestation of one's faith has to be 'intimately linked' (playfoot) to their beliefs so as to be protected by Article 9, OR should the extent of this linkage be dealt with at the stage of proportionality of any interference with that right?

Any relevant thoughts are welcome. Thank you

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.