Jurisdiction: California, USA.
If a book was written in Greek two thousand years ago, and someone translated it into English more recently (say, yesterday), and then someone else wants to translate that English translation into French, would that be a violation of copyright law?
This resource suggests to me that it may be: https://www.translatorsbase.com/articles/42.aspx
However I haven't found really clear legal information about such re-translation.