I am probably simplifying a complex situation, but this is the way I see it. There are several laws in India that govern the financial behavior of individuals - what securities they can buy in foreign markets, that they cannot buy stock on margin in foreign markets, and so on. All of these laws forbid individuals from using their own money as they please in other markets despite India's interests not being affected adversely in any manner. The preamble to the constitution of India guarantees justice, equality, and liberty to all citizens. Isn't the liberty (freedom of choice) of citizens being violated by the aforementioned laws? Are these laws even constitutional given that the constitution is interpreted literally? They appear to me to be an instance of legislative overreach.