I'm no American citizen, so I don't know that much about all the ins and outs of the Constitution. I've been watching a movie where one of the characters called the federal income tax "unconstitutional" due to the 5th Amendment. The 5th Amendment reads:
No person shall be held to answer for a capital, or otherwise infamous crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a Grand Jury, except in cases arising in the land or naval forces, or in the Militia, when in actual service in time of War or public danger; nor shall any person be subject for the same offence to be twice put in jeopardy of life or limb; nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself, nor be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.
Surfing the web, I found a claim that federal income tax is somehow reckoned to be indirect, which was used to have the 16th Amendment come to be. Indirect taxation is indeed no subject to the highlighted part of the 5th, yet I just can't see how federal tax is not direct.
Is federal income tax really indirect? If so, how? If not, how are 5th and 16th Amendments not contradicting one another?