I've always had the impression that the law is there to be fair and protect a disadvantaged party.
Let's say a partner in a marriage falls in love with someone else and divorces their current spouse. They and their new partner get the house, all children, and child support payments.
The poor ex loses everything: spouse, children, house, and now has to pay child support (which can be 50% of their income) to their ex.
In what world is this fair? Can someone explain to me why "no-fault" divorce is the de-facto law? why isn't infidelity considered a tort during divorce settlements?