Suppose someone bought a home that was listed as a two-family property by a real estate broker. That is how the listing read. However, the house was no longer a two-family property when the purchase was made because it was not grandfathered in when the owner did not start renovations within a certain time period. Wht laws, if any, did the seller or agent violate? Has the purchaser any recourse?

  • For what it is worth, the case you describe is far from open and shut. – ohwilleke Jan 13 at 0:17
  • Depending on where you bought this, your title company is probably the people you would sue, in most States you buy title insurance for something like this. – Ron Beyer Jan 13 at 2:09
  • I have edited this, and I think it is no longer a request for specific legal advice. If closed, I will vote to reopen. – David Siegel Jan 13 at 16:41
  • In what jurisdiction would this take place? What country, and if a federal country, what province or state? Laws on such matters differ widely. – David Siegel Jan 13 at 16:42

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