0

I don't understand how it is legal or even possible for the United States to seize money belonging to a foreigner from a foreign bank without that person having been convicted of a crime. What is the legal basis for this?

This is about seizing assets of FOREIGN citizens located in FOREIGN countries, not US civil forfeiture.

Improve this question
3
  • It's called "civil asset forfeiture" -- note that the defendants are "ALL ASSETS LISTED IN ATTACHMENT A, AND ALL INTEREST, BENEFITS, AND ASSETS TRACEABLE THERETO" (sorry for shouting; copy and paste). Whether assets in a foreign jurisdiction can actually be seized depends on the judicial system in the foreign jurisdiction.
    – phoog
    Dec 28, 2015 at 23:20
  • @phoog The other question does not apply since it says "in the United States"
    – Cicero
    Dec 28, 2015 at 23:25
  • The action you cite is a US civil forfeiture action. The US can decide that the assets are forfeit regardless of where they are located. They can only enforce the forfeiture with the cooperation of the foreign jurisdiction, but they do not need any such cooperation for the initial legal action.
    – phoog
    Dec 28, 2015 at 23:29

0

Reset to default

Browse other questions tagged .