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I have been sold a faulty vehicle by a second-hand car dealer. The place is in the United Kingdom. According to the Consumer Rights Act 2015 I can claim a full refund if I request it under 30 days. But then I didn't do that cause of my ignorance, I did though notify him about the issue in less than thirty days. Long story short, I am chasing him to fix the car now, but he is always difficult to catch, I have been chasing him for a couple of months now.

I once sent a letter with a deadline, then I reached to him online and he said that he did not receive it. I used the address on the gov.uk page where his business is registered. It was recorded and someone signed for him.

I have two questions.

Firstly, according to Consumer Rights 2015, is there a deadline from when the issue is raised to the trader to then taking action to fix it, or is it based on what deadline I set on my letter?

Secondly, if I do send a letter, for instance, notifies him for court, to which address should I send it to? His official one in gov.uk, where he claims he didn't notice or his yard? What is the legal sound thing to do, for then the judge to tell me that he wasn't notified (Is that a thing)?

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    I'm afraid that on this site we don't/can't give specific legal advice -- that is we don't advise what a person should do in a given situation. We can answer questions on what the law is, and to some extant on what the consequences of particular actions might be. You might be able to rewrite this question to usefully fit within that policy, but ":what should I do" is too deeply embedded in the current question for me to be willing to revise it on your behalf. You may need to consult an actual lawyer. Commented Feb 16, 2021 at 15:10
  • I will mention that one can send a letter by what I think in the UK is called registered mail, which gives you written proof of receipt Commented Feb 16, 2021 at 15:11
  • Thank you @DavidSiegel. I admit it was too case-specific. I hope the edits make my question a better fit for the community. I see I think I sent a letter where the other person signs but is not tracked. My question about the mail is if I take a court action would it be enough to send to his business mailing address (as aforementioned) or do I really need to make sure to send it somewhere that he will receive it. Bear in mind that I asked for a mail address and he did not give me one.
    – 20-roso
    Commented Feb 16, 2021 at 16:05

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According to Consumer Rights 2015, is there a deadline from when the issue is raised to the trader to then taking action to fix it, or is it based on what deadline I set on my letter?

The "deadline" is one that is reasonable in the circumstances. See s.23 of the Act:

[...]

(2) If the consumer requires the trader to repair or replace the goods, the trader must—

(a) do so within a reasonable time and without significant inconvenience to the consumer, and

(b) bear any necessary costs incurred in doing so (including in particular the cost of any labour, materials or postage).

[...]

(5) Any question as to what is a reasonable time or significant inconvenience is to be determined taking account of—

(a) the nature of the goods, and

(b) the purpose for which the goods were acquired.

[...]

If I do send a letter, for instance, notifies him for court, to which address should I send it to? His official one in gov.uk, where he claims he didn't notice or his yard?

The Civil Procedure Rules Pre-Action Protocols do not dictate where such a letter (referred to a letter before claim and described here and here) must be served but the usual requirement is to an address at which the potential defendant resides or carries on business within the UK. See Rule 6.8(a) for example.

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