There is some history behind oppression by proxy: both Nazis and Communists sponsored pro-government militias that committed violence on the respective governments' behest while the governments denied direct involvement. Can state governments do that in US?
The trigger for the question was the Texas "abortion ban", which is not really a ban but rather an open season for private citizens to sue abortion providers at the Texas government behest, on the state's dime, and in the state's courtrooms, while the state would deny direct involvement and therefore deny Roe v. Wade violation. Because, apparently, Texas v. Planned Parenthood would be illegal, but John Smith v. Planned Parenthood, requested and sponsored by Texas, is not.
This question is not about the particulars, not about abortions, but rather about how far state governments can go in encouraging and sponsoring actions that are illegal for the state government to perform.
Can Texas declare: "any citizen will be paid $10k for filing frivolous lawsuits against abortion providers, regardless of merit or standing," and then claim that Texas doesn't prosecute abortion provider? Apparently, SCOTUS has no problem with that.
Can a state declare: "any violence against
insert a group here shall not be prosecuted," which is pretty much what Nazis and Communists did, and then claim non-involvement in the violence that would ensue?
Can NY or CA decriminalize violence against gun owners and publish their names and addresses?
Can Texas offer $10k per abortionist's scalp?