Here, the verb appropriate is followed by TO. What does it mean that someone appropriates "goods of that description and in a deliverable state" TO THE CONTRACT? At large, what does it mean that a person appropriates goods TO THE CONTRACT? This syntax feels bizarre.
Which definition of appropriate applies here? I know many legal terms are still in Latin. Is the Latinate meaning of appropriate relevant at all?
Googling links to this wordreference.com thread. Sale of Goods Act 1979
Rule 5.
(1) Where there is a contract for the sale of unascertained or future goods by description, and goods of that description and in a deliverable state are unconditionally appropriated to the contract, either by the seller with the assent of the buyer or by the buyer with the assent of the seller, the property in the goods then passes to the buyer; and the assent may be express or implied, and may be given either before or after the appropriation is made.