Three different crimes are committed (for simplicity; the same type of crime, just distinct counts) by three different people. Someone is arrested based on evidence that proves they committed one of the crimes, but without being able to prove which one.
Could they be convicted for committing a crime?
Edit: an alternative that I thought of later: someone is found somewhere where they can legally be, but in a situation where the only way they could have gotten there would involve trespassing through one of several properties owned by different people.
(Tagged as US, but any other jurisdiction would also be of interest.)