This is an excerpt from a Home Office document. I am confused regarding how this should be read. Should all of the following conditions be filled or fullfilling any one is enough?
If a full talaq divorce takes place in Bangladesh or Pakistan it will be recognised in the UK if the procedures laid down under the Muslim Family Laws Ordinance 1961 were complied with, and the following applies:
- the husband or the wife is a Bangladeshi or Pakistani citizen
- he or she is habitually resident in Bangladesh or Pakistan
- he or she is domiciled in Bangladesh or Pakistan