The latter is used in our constitution, while the former is used in every other aspect where an election within lesser entities -like colleges or syndicates- is required. Furthermore, could an organic law regulating "Elections by popular vote" be applied to escenarios of "Elections by Universal Suffrage", given no law regulating the latter?

  • "our constitution"? Who is "our"?
    – Dale M
    Dec 13, 2021 at 2:39
  • @DaleM it's used in a generic way to reffer to set of laws with more hierarchy- Dec 13, 2021 at 2:44

1 Answer 1


Universal Suffrage

This means the right to vote is given to (almost) every adult citizen regardless of nationality, race, sex, occupation, family background, religious belief, education, property status, length of residence etc.

Popular Vote

This means that the outcome of the election proceeds directly from the voters without any intermediate representatives. For example, in a Westminster system, the election of a local MP is by popular vote. However, the enactment of laws and the election of the Speaker of the House is done by the MPs and so is not by popular vote. Even more restrictive, the election of the Prime Minister is by the government MPs only.

It can also be used to refer to the popular vote that the people cast even when there are intermediaries involved such as the way the United States elects its President.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .