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Can a restaurant bar a person from entry based on a dress code violation ("no trainers/sneakers", for example) that they do not enforce amongst their own staff?

  • Their staff are not patrons of the Resteraunt - they may well have a different code. – Dale M Mar 29 '16 at 12:09
  • that is opposite of the accepted answer, can you defend your view? I'll accept if it's good and posted as an answer – The dude Mar 29 '16 at 22:01
  • I agree with the accepted answer; this is just another perspective – Dale M Mar 29 '16 at 22:05
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Yes, barring any statutory prohibitions against such a rule. I would be very surprised if any existed. They don't exist in any jurisdiction I'm familiar with. Look up the local by-laws to be sure.

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