Why is there a special p possession ground for properties of religious ministers?

  • Likewise I really thought this was actually a good interesting question that would be appreciated by others.
    – Joseph P.
    Jun 2 at 15:00
  • 2
    In general "why is the law as it is" is off-topic here except for issues deeply embedded in legal history, like the question on juries recently asked. Otherwise the only answer is "because the legislature said so". Jun 2 at 16:08
  • Fair enough, although it seems there is often a clear intention that makes perfect sense once it is explained by you can't necessarily reverse induce it from just the provisions of the law. Understanding these rationales take assists in understanding the function of the law's provisions and also how it is applied. I mean judges often cite these sorts of legislative intents so it is even really consequential in bend able to predict how judges will apply them.
    – Joseph P.
    Jun 2 at 21:54
  • I've voted to reopen, as although this question is quite niche, I think it can be answered definitively. See, for example, here: landlordlawblog.co.uk/2016/02/24/… Jun 3 at 11:16


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