The US supreme court recently ruled to overturn Roe vs. Wade. Part of the decision was based on abortion laws when the 14th Amendment was ratified. While I understand that cherry picking the 14th Amendment's ratification might confront an equal protection challenge, it doesn't deal with the fundamental finding in Roe. I.e. that determining a) a fetus was present and b) that the fetus died of non-natural causes would require an unreasonable search by the government in violation of an individual's 4th amendment rights. The first 10 amendments finished ratifying in 1791 when there were no abortion laws in the US. So, if the court's originalists base their opinion on what those authors intended, why do they believe were there no laws against abortion when the bill of rights was ratified?
Of course there were laws on abortions in 1791
There just weren’t any statutes because this was handled by the common law. Under that, abortions were legal until quickening (when the mother first feels the foetus moving) and murder after that. Quickening usually takes place around 15-17 weeks. The fact that the Mississippi law makes 15 weeks the cutoff is probably not coincidental.