Forum-shopping is commonly defined as a case when a person who takes the initiative of bringing a court action may be tempted to choose his court on the basis of the law applied there.
Basically the party chooses the applicable law not because it is the most appropriate, but because it is the most favourable.
I can easilly understand this when we are facing an international contract between two parties based on different jurisdiction. In fact, it is a common practice that the parties choose a "neutral" place.
But is this possible when both parties are based on the same country and choose the law of another country as applicable law? E.g can two german companies agree (in contract) that the agreement is governed by the laws of France or Switzerland and that in case of dispute the courts of such countries shall have exclusive jurisdiction?