A bouncer to a bar in an English urban centre claims that it is the establishment’s standing policy not to allow entry for lone male visitors who are not with another person after a certain hour in the evening due to “past issues that have happened” with men who are visiting alone. After being asked for clarification another bouncer wandered over and chimed into the conversation claiming that it in fact had something to do with the council’s liquor licensing policy based on their venue’s traffic and size. They were unmistakably clear that the same rule did not apply to single women, as they had not had the same types of issues with single ladies visiting the venue alone previously as they had with single male visitors in the evenings.

My question is, how is this not textbook sex discrimination that would fall afoul of anti discrimination rules? Or is it? And if it is, how do they ever get away with maintaining this type of rule as a business?

1 Answer 1


This is unlawful sex discrimination

In fact, its incredibly close to the example given on this website:

A nightclub allows women in for free but you have to pay because you’re a man. This is unlawful discrimination because of your sex.

How do they get away with it?

Did you complain or report them? No? That’s how.

  • Funny you provided that fact pattern, I had the same in mind relative to another state of the European Council while answering a similar question of OP (law.stackexchange.com/questions/87330/…). There, the state Supreme Court decided it was completely lawful, and/or not even discriminatory. (I disagreed with that decision) Interesting to see that the UK made the right call on this one.
    – kisspuska
    Dec 21, 2022 at 5:00

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