This is motivated by a key plot point in a televised version of an Agatha Christie story "At Bertram's Hotel". Although I read the story several years ago, I don't remember if the original had the same plot point. If the time frame matters, Wikipedia says the TV versions are set in the '50s, the stories were set a decade or more earlier.
The first husband is murdered so he can't divulge the fact and mess up the inheritance she is about to get from the passing of seven years since the rich "husband" is lost in a plane over the ocean.
I was thinking she was not inheriting by operation of law due to being his legitimate wife, but by being identified in a will. There is no ambiguity as to who the will is referring to.
To repeat/clarify - woman marries husband 1 and separated without divorce. She later married husband 2 who, we assume, has never been married. The first marriage is not well known so she gets away with it.
Husband two missing for 7 years declared dead. His will leaves much to “his wife”. Since she is not his wife due to bigamy, does she inherit?