What were the driving forces that led to it, what were the mechanisms that enacted it, and what were the stated rationales for it?

Adultery is still recognised as a fault factor in divorce that facilitates legal consequences in a civil context.

So why not recognise the other side of it as a tort in itself when it is seen elsewhere by the law to cause genuine harm ?

  • 1
    Wikipedia says: "In the United States, heartbalm actions were widespread until high-profile stories in the early 20th century about heartbalm claims being abused for blackmail and extortion led to calls for repeal." They give some references which you might like to look up. Mar 13, 2023 at 14:20


You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .