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Underlying this question I would like to know if there is anything in the ECHR for example that inherently proscribes a country stigmatising to any degree the ownership of properties (perhaps beyond a “reasonable” scale, whatever that is to mean), that are to be inhabited by others from which one charges substantial rent simply for owning the others’ home (s).

If a country wanted to restrict, sanction, dampen, stigmatise or prohibit this, are there any fundamental doctrines like human right provisions that would not allow this? For example right to quiet enjoyment of one’s property?

In this sense perhaps one way of thinking about this question is in the terms of “does the EU human right of quiet enjoyment protect/encompass the practise of charging others rent without restrictions for occupying one’s properties?”

Corollary: what’s the closest a European country has come to outlawing landlordism, or landlordism beyond a certain scale?

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  • What is the problem with this question? Apparently it needs more specificity, but the grounds for closing don’t seem to give any specificity at all. Apr 1, 2023 at 17:50

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