Lets say I want to run for office in California. I'm a resident of California, but I haven't been a resident of California for five years, which is a requirement. I want to argue that this infringes on my first amendment rights.
Do I actually have to file the form, pay the fee and then be formally denied? Or is this not a requirement?
I'm just curious about the mechanics of it. Taking a page from this journal article, I'd argue the right to candidacy is a first amendment right, and that having long state residency requirements violates that right.
Just mechanically, how does this process work?