Due to a separation, I've heard mention of my ex-partner thinking about an "Occupancy Order" which basically sets out who can live in a marital home.
These are, as it turns out, distinct from something called a "Non-Molestation Order", which are primarily concerned with keeping domestic abuse perpetrators away from their victims.
However, seeing as I'd never heard any of this before I had to Google it. Although there is a definite distinction between the two (and I definitely DO NOT fit into the latter category), almost EVERY SINGLE article online bunch them together - probably for good reason - but it took a long time to realise they are not the same thing (i.e. being a respondent of an Occupation Order does NOT imply domestic abuse).
So whilst I now understand the difference, the fact that the two are so intrinsically linked on the internet, I'm worried that people will hear about this, Google it, and then incorrectly think I'm some sort of wife-beater.
Is there any precedent, in the UK, for defamation / moral injury in these circumstance where someone's character is damaged due to the widespread misunderstandings and ignorance of the general public?
EDIT: Changed from "Occupation Order" to "Occupancy Order", which is the term used originally, and really changes the context of search results.