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Has the "right to assemble" (US 1st Amendment) ever been shown to apply to just two persons? I was just wondering if it had ever been applied to as few as two persons. (Or even one person in fact.) I wonder if that's still an open question or can one or two people "assemble"? What constitutes "assembly"?

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    How would it even be possible to infringe your right to assemble with yourself? – cpast May 25 '16 at 15:07
  • @cpast To be fair, the text doesn't say anything about the right to assemble with anyone, only the right to assemble in relation to the right to petition, so the question isn't as trivial to write off. – user3851 May 25 '16 at 16:24
  • @Dawn doesn't an assembly require at least two elements (i.e., people)? The right for one person to go somewhere is the right of freedom of movement, not the right of assembly. – phoog May 25 '16 at 18:03
  • @phoog You've just restated the question. I'm working on an answer. And you're right, the right for one person to go somewhere doesn't implicate the right to assemble. – user3851 May 25 '16 at 18:16
  • @Dawn I haven't exactly restated the question. The question is whether the right to assemble can apply to one or two persons. I am challenging your statement that "the text doesn't say anything about the right to assemble with anyone" because I believe that the definition of "assemble" necessarily implies "with at least one other person." I would argue that two people can exercise a right to assemble, but one person cannot. – phoog May 25 '16 at 18:58

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