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I received a letter yesterday regarding my parent's property that was sold 2 years ago. I am the administrator for the estate and the sale of the property and I am being asked to pay $5868.09, toward a prior DOT for a prior line of credit from 1991. Shouldn't this have been paid with the sale of the house? Am I responsible for this debt? How do I find out if this is legitimate?

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    Was a title search done for the property (I'm presuming this is real estate property)?
    – Jon Custer
    Commented Aug 15, 2023 at 14:54
  • Are you currently administering the estate, and this request for payment came in during the period when creditors are allowed to submit claims? If the claim turns out to be valid, would you be paying it out of the estate's funds rather than your personal funds? Commented Aug 16, 2023 at 16:39

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In administering an estate, the administrator is responsible for settling debts, according to probate law of that jurisdiction. There is a notification procedure where you tell creditors (via a newspaper) to submit claims within some period (as prescribed by law). If you did that, the period was 90 days, and a creditor submits a demand for payment on the 92nd day, they have no legal claim against you. If you did not follow the procedure then you may be personally liable. If you are saying that you received the claim in time and neglected to pay, you are likely liable for the debt.

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