The Fifth Amendment:
[N]or shall any person . . . be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law . . . .
The Fourteenth Amendment:
[N]or shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law . . . .
From all I've read - including a comment by cpast - the two clauses are interpreted identically. So why was the clause added to the 14th Amendment?
The one difference seems to be the use of "State" in the 14th Amendment - thus applying it not just on a federal level - but I would think that the Constitution would be automatically applicable in all state level cases.