A recent article from the Anti-Defamation League states (without citing any sources or providing any evidence):
Genocide is a legal term, and in no way do Israeli policies and actions meet this legal threshold. [...] While one may oppose and even condemn particular Israeli policies or actions with regard to Palestinians or Israel’s Arab citizens, the fact remains that in no way has Israel engaged in any action with the intent to exterminate, in whole or in part, the Palestinian people.
To the contrary, an older piece from the Center for Constitutional Rights demonstrates that:
Prominent human rights advocates and scholars have argued that the killings of Palestinians and their forceful expulsion from mandate Palestine in 1948, the Israeli occupation of the West Bank, East Jerusalem, and Gaza, and the violence and discrimination directed at Palestinians by the Israeli government have violated a number of human rights protections contained in international human rights law, genocide being among them.
Given that intent is often hard to prove but an important part of the legal definition of genocide, I will mention that this article includes quotes from Israeli officials on pp. 8-9 that seem to demonstrate such intent explicitly.
Has there been any formal legal process examining this general question in a relevant court? Are there compelling arguments in Israel's defense that directly address the kinds of evidence included in the CCR piece?