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Assume that, in a modern kingdom, the Crown Prince murders the king. He technically becomes king, as he's the legal heir of the throne. Could the prince be prosecuted for that and denied the throne?

In 1648, the Parliamentarians were debating the charges to try Charles I for, and one of those that came up was a claim that he killed his father James. Would these kinds of cases mean that you could prosecute them on the grounds that they were not legitimately made king and this doesn't have sovereign immunity?

Edit: Not specific to a particular country. Nepal had a famous regicide in 2001. Also, the Kuwaiti Sheik just died. If that was caused by his brother who is now the Sheik shooting him for instance, that would also count.

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    This is a political question that doesn't really have a meaningful answer within the legal system.
    – ohwilleke
    Commented Dec 16, 2023 at 0:23
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    I know of no murder of Queen Elisabeth II, then head of the house Saxe-Coburg and Gotha branch "Windsor" and ruler of Great Britain and the Commonwealth, that happened in 2001.
    – Trish
    Commented Dec 16, 2023 at 1:06
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    Well, then I guess we can assume he isn't talking about England.
    – user6726
    Commented Dec 16, 2023 at 1:10
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    I agree to the reopening, but the question should be improved. After all, killing a king to become king in his stead did happen in history numerous times.
    – PMF
    Commented Dec 16, 2023 at 9:26
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    "in a modern kingdom" there is no such thing as a default "modern kingdom", just as there is no default "modern democrary" as far as laws are concerned. Please state which kingdom you mean.
    – nvoigt
    Commented Dec 16, 2023 at 9:39

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