Is it true that while for prosecution according to civil (private) law there has to be a party that has been wronged (I'm going to refer to as "victim" from now on) while for criminal law that does not have to be the case?

More specifically that in criminal law …:

• Something might be a victimless crime or a crime where the victim isn't clearly defined (can't be pin-pointed to, e.g.: the "public", the "future").

• Something might involve a victim who does not consider him or herself one (while being of sound mind, having legal capacity, etc.)