Alice produces some copyrighted work and commits it to physical form as The Item (e.g. a printed manuscript). Alice then writes "not licensed for resale" on the item and gives it to Bob. Bob sells it to Clarice, who sells it to David, who gives it to Eunice, who dies, resulting in Fred inheriting the Item.

1. Which party, if any, has committed a crime (or tort)?
2. Which party can Alice compel (or ask a court to compel) to surrender the item while in their possession?
3. Ignoring *explicit* theft (i.e. assuming that all parties surrender possession of the Item willingly), are there other change-of-possession scenarios I've omitted? If so, please answer (1) and (2) for those as well.
4. How does time factor into the above? (For example, does it make a difference if Fred comes into possession of the Item five days after Alice gives it to Bob, vs. if ten years pass in between each change of possession?)
5. Is there any validity to the conjecture that, while Fred might legally possess the *physical* Item, he does not have a valid *license* for the copyrighted material and is therefore not permitted to *read* the Item?

Note: This is similar, but not identical, to https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/60744.