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The refusal of a public body to allocate a male due to not having a male worker, would this be discrimination or...?

Bob requested, from the public service company dealing with child issues, the presence of a male employee as he felt discriminated and intimidated with the way the female employees were leading meetings and there was never a male with them.

When requesting this, the female employees started to laugh at Bob and an employee said there are no male employees available in the whole region and Bob can meet only with women.

Bob asked why there are no male employees. The female employees said that men look for higher paying jobs claiming that they earn less.

Regarding the employees: Wouldn't this be a discrimination against male employees? Because the company is not willing to offer a higher pay to allow the company to have the correct gender balance and not have a female-centric service?

Regarding Bob receiving the service from the company: Would the refusal of the service to provide a male employee for Bob to meet with have a different scope of discrimination or what?