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35

An anti-BDS law may be invalid in some circumstances, but this has nothing to do with the establishment clause of the First Amendment. Boycotting or not boycotting Israel is not an inherently religious question and isn't justified as such. More often the issues will be pre-emption by a higher level of government's laws, lack of legal authority to enact such ...


10

First, there is no prohibition against a Jewish man marrying an Eastern European woman in Israel. If they are both Jewish, the marriage can be performed in Israel. If they are not the same religion, then if they get married in Israel, the government will not recognize the marriage. However, Israel recognizes inter-faith marriages performed outside Israel. ...


6

Westphalian Sovereignty Israel has decided that this is the law in Israel and they are the only one who gets a say in this. The concept of the modern nation-state can trace its origins to the Treaty of Westphalia (possibly - there is disagreement among historians and political scientists but for our purposes we'll just let them get on with it) which ended ...


6

Mere co-occupancy as a fellow tenant of a building owned by a third-party, without more, does not amount to harboring or concealing, the action that the statute in question criminalizes. Mere inaction does not establish criminal liability under this statute. The statute does not require the AP to actively gather intelligence for the U.S. government, or to ...


4

Short answer A pro-settler organization called Nahalat Shimon is using a 1970 law to argue that the owners of the land before 1948 were Jewish families, and so the current Palestinian landowners should be evicted and their properties given to Israeli Jews. Long answer


4

No. One cannot accidentally violate 18. U.S.C. § 2339, because "harboring or concealing" a terrorist implies deliberate actions. Although the terms are undefined in the statute, a court looking to interpret them would likely rely on the fairly rich body of case law surrounding the more general harboring-and-concealing statute, 18 U.S.C. § 1071. ...


4

Israel certainly can try people for crimes against Israeli law occurring outside Israel, if it can get hold of them, and if it chooses to act. The case of Adolf Eichmann makes that amply clear. How often the Israeli government chooses to act against Israeli citizens accused of operating a sex ring in some country other than Israel, i do not know. As ...


3

The owner would need to go through the eviction process, and would need to show that the tenant had violated the terms of the agreement. Conceivably, a tenant could be evicted for using the property to carry out a criminal enterprise, but the courts would have to decide if that is the case. The underlying issue would be whether allowing the tenant to remain ...


3

There are two "international law" courts, the ICC and ICJ. The ICC is generally for crimes, for example, it is currently investigating for Israel for "war crimes" against Palestine. The ICJ makes more sense here, as it can deal with individuals whose rights are supposedly being violated by states. But member states need to first accept ...


3

Any legal question that begins with the word "suppose" becomes an academic exercise. Acceptance of religious principle can be incorporated in law, but it can also be reversed by later legislatures. In the case of witchcraft, I would recommend reading the results of a search on "Matthew Hopkins", "Pendle" and "Salem". ...


3

The whole institution of marriage is subject to arbitrary interpretation/twisting within/by any sovereign jurisdiction. Countries are normally within their rights to recognise marriages subject to any conditions they like, or even completely repudiate the institution of marriage altogether. Is there an international law to protect his/her rights to marry to ...


2

I have to challenge the question's frame in this answer. To say that such marriages are prohibited implies that they are forbidden. But there is nothing in Israel's law that forbids them. Israel does not have any legal framework for state officials to officiate marriages. It does, however, recognize as legitimate all marriages performed by all clergy and ...


2

The law originated under the Ottoman Empire from a general principle of Islamic law regarding dhimmi, non-Muslims in a Muslim state subject to that state's legal protection. Where Shari`ah governs certain aspects of life (marriage, inheritance, contract) for Muslims, each religious community can have their own system of laws. The practice dates back to the ...


2

Copyright only protects expression, and does not give an author ownership over the subject matter. So you can teach "about" the book in any forum you want. The only limit pertains to actual copying, for example you can't convert the text of a book into some Powerpoint-like display and then run those slides as your video. You can do that for money, if you ...


1

If your contract does not define “week” it takes its normal meaning The normal meaning of week is a period of 7 consecutive days. Depending on context this may be ‘free-floating’ or start on a particular day; usually Sunday in English speaking countries YMMD.


1

You need an injunction (Tzav Mnia) An injunction is an interim measure to prevent things getting worse while the actual merits of the case are decided. They can order people to do or not do certain things and failure to comply is contempt of court - a pretty serious crime.


1

I don't know Israeli law but in most cases in the U.S., the answer is "no." A landlord (or other contract signer) can't cancel a contract signed in good faith with a tenant just because that tenant had been known to defraud others. Even if he has a "rap sheet" a mile long. The landlord can (often) cancel a contract if the tenant "stiffed" him/her (...


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