Hot answers tagged

8

We cannot guess what the seller will do, but the law is that unsolicited merchandise is treated as a gift.


6

In such a case the person who bypasses the terms knows that use of the site is conditioned on agreement to the terms, and has taken an explicit action to continue past the terms and use the site. I suspect that if a dispute were to arise where this is relevant, it would be held that taking such action was legally equivalent to clicking "I agree". But I don't ...


4

Of course you'd be in legal trouble, the contract is still valid. I also don't know why you don't consider virtual goods to be goods. Take this example: You buy a 1 year subscription for (example) netflix. The next day they cancel your subscription but don't give you the money back because its not a "real good". This should make it clear that virtual goods ...


4

Yes One could certainly put up a site whose only content was a link to another domain. And I can't find any law which this would violate. If the link is a "deep link", and if it bypasses a log-in page, while the other site is so designed that all access is intended to go through the login, i believe (but cannot at the moment verify) that the owner of the ...


3

I only address the core legal question. The first question regards where the review appeared: on the facility's own web page, or on some third party web page? In the latter case, there is the possibility that soliciting a modified review in exchange for something of value violates the terms of usage for that web site. There are also US federal regulations ...


2

This will be legal except for some bizarre and very unlikely scenarios — unlikely both technically and sensically. The only scenario when it is technically possible Nowadays that is rarely possible: the IP address(es) that you find will either be shared with other sites, or point to an intermediary service making the site highly available and fault ...


2

It doesn't work that way. Simply pointing a domain at a server IP won't do what you think, for any number of reasons, i.e., load balancing, proxies, CDNs, shared IPs, the way the webserver is configured, etc. You may be able to display a simple home page on a server with a single IP. But simply pointing the domain isn't going to rewrite the source code of ...


2

I don't know where you got the idea that Legally speaking, these "in game currencies" aren't recognized as personal property. They aren't recognized as money and you can't use them to pay your taxes or buy your groceries. But then you can't use collectable baseball cards to do either of those things, but they are personal property, you can sell them, and ...


2

Look at the bottom of this site - you'll find a Creative Commons "cc by-sa" license. That's Attribution Required, Share Alike. The tagline suggests that the blog is republishing similar CC-licensed content with an Attribution requirement. So yes, it looks like the tagline is there for a contractual reason.


1

Your interpretation of the EU law is correct, Art. 27 says The consumer shall be exempted from the obligation to provide any consideration in cases of unsolicited supply of goods, water, gas, electricity, district heating or digital content or unsolicited provision of services, prohibited by Article 5(5) and point 29 of Annex I to Directive 2005/...


1

If PayPal are in breach of their contract you can sue for damages Economic loss is calculable and there are various methodologies for doing so. Your lawyer will probably have you engage an expert witness to do so. No doubt PayPal will have their own expert to explain to the court why your expert is FoS (and vice-versa). However, it’s extremely unlikely ...


1

It depends on the context This would be illegal if the statement gives rise in Mr. X of a reasonable fear of imminent violence or if Mr. X were part of a protected class and the threat was made specifically because of that membership. In the context of an online game, it is likely that the statement is neither meant nor taken as a genuine incitement to ...


1

If you do so, it is important to make very clear in conspicuous text that the trademarks are used without the permission of the owners and do not constitute an endorsement of your product by any of those companies. Also, while it is probably legal to do so if you do that, the common practice would be to not identify brands that have not endorsed your ...


1

Yes you can - identifying specific products is what trademarks are for.


Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible