A common pattern in software distribution is to have an installer program that pops up and offers the user a license to the software, and prompts the user to accept it. This End User License Agreement will almost always include a term explicitly granting the user the right to install and use the software.
I've never seen a license agreement like this make that license conditional on having actually paid for the software. Sometimes they will mention that one needs to e.g. "activate" software against a server or enter a product key for the license to apply, but even in those cases it doesn't seem common to stipulate that e.g. the key must have been purchased by you.
What if the user gets their installer by downloading it for free from an unauthorized distributor, instead of by paying for a copy from someone licensed to distribute them?
If the user runs the unmodified installer and it immediately offers the user a license from the software author, and the user accepts it and complies with it, do they end up with a properly licensed installation?
If not, why not? Why would the software author's automated offer of a license not "count"? Or are terms in the license handling this situation much more common than I realize? Or has the author managed to revoke the user's license without knowing about its existence?