For the sake of contrast, consider the wording of the First Amendment:
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
The First Amendment makes clear that only a legal institution which enacts a law, say, "abridging the freedom of speech," would be in violation of the US Constitution; if a private corporation does so, it would not be in violation of this law.
Contrast the wording of the Fourth Amendment:
The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.
This passage does not say "shall not be violated by Congress," but rather "shall not be violated," full stop.
Is it a correct inference that the right "to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects" extends to even a private corporation? For example, if a corporation, without disclosing such practices in its Terms of Service or Privacy Policy or whatever, infringes on a client's "security in his person," would such corporation be in violation of the Fourth Amendment (irrespective of any other potential legal issues)?