I've seen a lot recently on this site discussing Salinas v Texas. Did this 2013 case effectively roll back some of the protections of Miranda v Arizona? Because I'm trying to understand how the following:
Petitioner’s Fifth Amendment claim fails because he did not expressly invoke the privilege against self-incrimination in response to the officer’s question. It has long been settled that the privilege “generally is not self-executing” and that a witness who desires its protection “ ‘must claim it.’ ”
doesn't violate the spirit of:
The person in custody must, prior to interrogation, be clearly informed that he has the right to remain silent, and that anything he says will be used against him in court; he must be clearly informed that he has the right to consult with a lawyer and to have the lawyer with him during interrogation, and that, if he is indigent, a lawyer will be appointed to represent him.
I understand that in Salinas the person in question wasn't "in custody", but my (lay) understanding of Miranda is that the whole intent is to protect those less educated in law. Am I misunderstanding Miranda, or does Salinas roll back its protections?