Many software license agreements (or even terms of sale for physical copies) include prohibitions on reverse engineering as a condition. If I legitimately purchase and install and use the software, I have then contracted to not reverse engineer the software. If I turn around and do it anyway, and, say, develop a competing product that eats into sales of the original, my understanding is that I could be sued for damages for those lost sales because of my breach of the contract.
Does the same principle apply if I do not get an available license and instead deliberately infringe copyright?
If I reverse engineer the software by downloading a copy off The Pirate Bay instead of by buying a licensed copy, I would be liable for damages for having made a copy without permission. But say I take that copy and turn around and reverse engineer it, without making any more copies, and I launch a competing product that does not itself constitute a derivative work. Would I be liable for damages for lost sales on the original software resulting from reverse engineering that I was only not prohibited from doing because I infringed copyright? Or would I only be liable for statutory or actual damages for my infringing copies of the original software?