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My ex-fiancée sent me a WhatsApp message a few months back to "inform" me that she got married and that I should forget and forgive.

What I didn't know back then was that it was her second marriage in few months. She recently divorced someone and married with someone else. I found that out recently and sent her a WhatsApp message saying that I didn't know she married twice and I am disappointed in what I saw in both husbands. And I am genuinely sad for her.

Also I told her I will not forget or forgive her quoting the message she sent me. All of that was in 1 WhatsApp message. Afterwards, she called me and told me that she will file a complaint against me for harassment.

Is this considered harassment?

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  • To clarify, are you asking if your behaviour or her behaviour counts as harassment?
    – Comic Sans Seraphim
    Commented Nov 15, 2020 at 21:37
  • @Studoku my behavior
    – Carlson
    Commented Nov 16, 2020 at 3:54
  • The fact that she called you to tell you this rather than doing everything she can to cut off interaction with you kinda delegitimises her grievance.
    – gen-ℤ ready to perish
    Commented Nov 17, 2020 at 15:57

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Under UK law, harassment requires at least 2 interactions

So, a single WhatsApp message cannot be harassment, but 2 can be. So can 1 WhatsApp message and 1 phone call. Or 1 WhatsApp and an email. Or 1 WhatsApp and a letter. Or ... you get the idea.

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    Given the message was what looks to be in reply to a message sent by the party claiming harassment, I'd feel pretty confident about successfully fighting this in court anyway, even if the authorities took action. You cant engage someone in conversation and then claim harassment for a single response.
    – user28517
    Commented Nov 15, 2020 at 21:05
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Is this considered as harassment?

  The offence is at s.1(1) of the Protection From Harassment Act 1997:

 A person must not pursue a course of conduct— (a) which amounts to harassment of another, and (b) which he knows or ought to know amounts to harassment of the other.

And s.7(3)(a) defines a "course of conduct" as...

conduct on at least two occasions.

So in answer to the question: No.

Based on the available information, this is a one-off communication with no intent.

(Nor is it an offence under the Malicious Communications Act 1988 or any other UK legislation.)

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