Assume someone is a citizen of the United States, and a resident of another country (if a specific example is necessary, Turkey). They live in the foreign country and work remotely for a company in the US. Their income is taxed the normal way by the US government (the Foreign Earned Income Tax Exclusion may apply).

Would the foreign government get the short end of the deal in this situation, because the income has already been taxed by the US? Or would it be necessary to file their taxes in some more complicated way so that both governments get a piece of the pie?

  • 3
    FWIW, a specific example is necessary, and even with the countries involved that may not be specific enough and the issue may not be entirely settled law.
    – ohwilleke
    Commented Dec 12, 2022 at 16:07
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    In my case (with different countries involved), my income was taxable in both countries, but I could receive a tax credit with each country for any tax I had actually paid to the other, preventing me from paying tax twice on the same income. Whichever country I happened to actually pay first (such as because it was automatically taken out of my paycheck) got the money initially; I assumed that either they didn't care (assuming it averages out over all dual tax payers), or had procedures to sort out the exact share they should have between the two tax offices after the fact.
    – Ben
    Commented Dec 13, 2022 at 3:09

1 Answer 1


That will depend on the specific provisions of Turkish law (in the example case) and the provisions of the tax treaty between Turkey and the US. The Turkish resident will probably have to file with Turkey. To what extent s/he will get credit for taxes paid to the US, and indeed to what extent income from a US company is taxable under Turkish law will depend on the specifics of Turkish law and of any treaty, and may well be different in a different country.

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