This is a really interesting and great question:
Hypothetically walking the line between pornography and prostitution
I wanted to add one question to the general one of where the conceptual “boundary” of prostitution is.
That post quotes this Texas law of the Texas penal code:
Sec. 43.02. PROSTITUTION.
(a) A person commits an offense if, in return for receipt of a fee, the person knowingly:
(1) offers to engage, agrees to engage, or engages in sexual conduct; or
(2) solicits another in a public place to engage with the actor in sexual conduct for hire.
(b) A person commits an offense if, based on the payment of a fee by the actor or another person on behalf of the actor, the person knowingly:
(1) offers to engage, agrees to engage, or engages in sexual conduct; or
(2) solicits another in a public place to engage with the actor in sexual conduct for hire.
I’d be curious to know more about that phrasing, “in return for a receipt of a fee”, and “based on the payment of a fee”. As far as I can tell, the first one restricts sellers of prostitution, the second one buyers. I feel like the language could be made even more neutral, simple and clear though, and I’d be curious to know why legislators hashed out this exact wording, from a legal theory standpoint.
My true question is, does the above wording mean that exchanging services or gifts for sex is either a) not illegal or b) not prostitution? In other contexts, for example the definition of “bribery”, I have seen “gifts and services” mentioned along with payment as possible culpable behaviors that would qualify as bribery.