I work for a small company and due to lack of business they are changing their business model; as part of this my role is now being made redundant.
I was given my notice (a duration of 1 month) before 2 years of continuous employment.
On my confirmed last day of employment, I will have been working at the company for 2 years and 14 days.
My employer states I am not entitled to statutory redundancy pay because I have worked with the company for less than 2 years.
So my question is - Is the relevant date calculated from when you were given notice, or your effective end date that decides if you are eligible for statutory redundancy?
Food for thought...
- If it turns out I am eligible for statutory redundancy, could the employer enforce gardening leave before the 2 years deadline to cancel my eligibility? (curious!)
- Halfway through my employment, I relocated abroad and now work remotely. Would this have any impact on my eligibility?