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At first when Max Schrems started doing it they complied in good faith completely.

Now they don't. Do they have some legal theory or workaround as to why they were required to back then but no longer now?

Any other thoughts or considerations on the phenomenon also welcome.

References: 1 2

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  • 4
    they can also be just in violation of the law...
    – Trish
    Commented Jun 4, 2022 at 10:19
  • 4
    "Now they don't" - This claim needs a citation from a reputable source. Is it a published policy or is it personal experience? If the latter, what grounds were given?
    – user35069
    Commented Jun 4, 2022 at 10:43
  • It's a widely reported phenomenon. Ill post some links from Google when getI home. Commented Jun 4, 2022 at 11:03
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    A law is only as good as its enforcement. The comparatively sluggish and tentative enforcement by the Irish DPC has been widely criticized. Facebook doesn't have much to fear for its violations, especially since they can and will drag out any enforcement action by challenging enforcement in court and/or switching to legally distinct but practically equivalent positions.
    – amon
    Commented Jun 4, 2022 at 11:44
  • 2
    Please edit your sources into your original question, rather than leaving them in comments, which may be moved or deleted at any time. Providing author and title as well as a link is a good idea. Commented Jun 5, 2022 at 0:00

1 Answer 1

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As reported (non-authoritatively i.e. not via Facebook itself) here, it is because data could be used to signify medical history, sexual orientation or religion, data which are deemed highly personal and sensitive information. Whether or not the authorities accept this reasoning can only be determined in court.

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    The article uses unclear grammar, but probably means that Veale's challenge of the FB response is based on the data's sensitivity, not that FB declined the DSAR due to the data's sensitivity.
    – amon
    Commented Jun 5, 2022 at 18:30
  • Yes that would make much more sense. Commented Jun 5, 2022 at 22:10

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