What are the rules about defamation when information is accidentally released?

Question

It is in the news that Omid Scobie, the author of the book Endgame, is claiming that he produced an early version of his book with potentially defamatory statements about the UK royal family. This version was made public by mistake:

Unbeknownst to me at the time, early and uncleared text was provided to the Dutch publisher in order for them to start work on the translation, with the understanding that their translation would be updated to reflect the final version of the book I officially submitted.

While there has been talk about the royal family taking legal action that is not a common response for them historically. Also it seems the publisher disputes this story. However as a hypothetical if we assume this is what happened and a suit was filled what would be the legal situation? Would Omid Scobie be liable, as he did initially produce the work that has the defamatory statement and distributed it to others? Would the translator be liable, as they produced A work that has the defamatory statement? Would the publishers be liable, assuming it was their mistake that caused the defamatory statement to become public? Would no one be liable as no one actually intended to deceive anyone?

Answer 1

To all except your last question: yes

Defamation is easy: it is the making of untrue (or literally true but contextually misleading), reputation-damaging statements by one party about a second party that are made to a third party.

Would Omid Scobie be liable, as he did initially produce the work that has the defamatory statement and distributed it to others?

Yes

Would the translator be liable, as they produced A work that has the defamatory statement?

Yes

Would the publishers be liable, assuming it was their mistake that caused the defamatory statement to become public?

Yes

There are almost surely contractural indemnities between the parties and some will have indemnities as employees of corporates, and they are all almost surely insured. However, the defamed third party can sue any and all people involved.

Would no one be liable as no one actually intended to deceive anyone?

What has deception got to do with defamation?