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King Edward passed a law ("Edict of Expulsion") in England expelling all Jews from England.

According to Wikipedia, Oliver Cromwell permission of resettlement was revoked, and the right of Jews in England is only "implied."

Does this mean that the Jewish settlement in England is technically illegal?

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  • Note that the article says "it likewise enabled Charles II, on his return, to avoid taking any action on the petition of the merchants of London asking him to revoke Cromwell's concession".
    – user6726
    Commented May 30, 2017 at 5:00

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Under several laws passed between 1835 and 1890. In 1890 all religious restrictions on Jews (or indeed on anyone of any given faith) were lifted for all offices in Britain except the monarch, The Lord Chancellor and the Lord Lieutenant of Ireland (abolished 1922), which, as ecclesiastical positions within the Anglican church still require the office holder to be of that faith.

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  • IIRC, it is actually also some members of the royal family and not just the monarch, but in general, you hit the nail on the head.
    – ohwilleke
    Commented May 31, 2017 at 0:55
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    I seem to recall that Moses Montefiore became sheriff of London shortly after the 1835 legislation.
    – Michael Hardy
    Commented May 31, 2017 at 3:49
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    @MichaelHardy You recall that! Man are you old!
    – Dale M ♦
    Commented May 31, 2017 at 6:14
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    @DaleM : yeah ... Lots of kids who post here can't remember Henry IV.
    – Michael Hardy
    Commented May 31, 2017 at 14:27
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    Yes but wasn’t this question about permission of Jews to simply reside in England rather than to hold certain offices?
    – TylerDurden
    Commented Jan 1 at 17:14

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