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7

Yes, it is legal for Steam to disable content on your PC because when you downloaded the Demo for the game "Observer", you "clicked through" and agreed to either a TOS (Terms of Service) and/or a EULA (End User License Agreement) which was a legally binding contract. That contract stated the terms of use of the demo and when Steam can ...


2

This is probably illegal. Forging a signature is illegal, indeed it is a crime. If you signed a contract with bank A with a certain interest rate, bank A can sell that contract to bank B, but neither A nor B can change the terms (e.g. increase the interest charge). There might be some sketchy clause in the contract that you did sign which they think allows ...


6

Because English loves homophones A lot of words in English have more than one meaning. The current front runner is run with 645 definitions in the OED. Understanding English requires more than knowing the definitions, it requires understanding the context. Warranty in a contract law context means a term the breach of which does not justify terminating the ...


1

Do I have to let Buyer in after disclosing new defects? In line with Ryan M and Ron Beyer, reading the full contract is crucial for ascertaining whether the term "subsequent or amended disclosure" encompasses that of belated defects, especially where the inspection contingency had been removed or its deadline was expired by the time the defects ...


5

No, such clauses are precise and common. The landlord wants to say: “we're not liable for anything”. Unfortunately for them, they can't say that because the law might still recognize some liability. So this construction achieves the next best thing: to the maximum extent possible, they will not be liable. What does this mean for you? If you want to sue them ...


2

does this means he would have to wait 6 months before working at a job in a related field? Is this enforceable? No. Although the last sentence appears to encompass the whole IT business in British Columbia, that naive provision would be voided as unreasonable and contrary to public policy. For that clause to be valid, (1) "direct competition" can ...


2

In civil law jurisdictions, for example under French law, the drafter of the contract has a choice between labelling that 1 trillion clause either as a contractual penalty, or as liquidated damages. If they are secretly certain they'd never want to actually collect the penalty, they'll write whichever they think will make a stronger impression on the other ...


1

Sources California code DIVISION 2, Part 4, Title 4, Chapter 2, Article 1.5 section 1102.3 provides: The seller of any single-family real property subject to this article shall deliver to the prospective buyer the completed written statement required by this article, as follows: (a) In the case of a sale, as soon as practicable before transfer of title. ...


1

"Is he still able to cancel when I disclose these additional defects?" Yes, especially if the other party to the contract (i.e. you) also desire to cancel it. Also, a major piece of new evidence arose that neither party knew before entering the contract. "Can we both mutually agree to cancel the purchase contract and I grant him his deposit ...


4

There are many contracts that are well over 10,000 pages For example: mining contracts - the environmental impact statement alone is likely to be of the order of 10,000 pages. privatised prisons - it takes a lot of pages to set out the expectations of the government on things like prisoner welfare defence contracts - aircraft carriers are complex pieces of ...


9

Such a clause would not generally be enforceable. Penalty clauses are generally not enforceable in common-law jurisdictions, although in some continental law jurisdictions they are (this article gives a civil law vs common law comparison). Given the number you're talking about, this doesn't correspond to a reasonable estimate of actual damages for breach of ...


60

What you're talking about is a liquidated-damages clause, where the contract explicitly spells out the damages to be awarded in the event of a breach. The law will vary some from state to state, but these clauses are generally enforceable. Some courts limit their use to cases where calculating the damages resulting from the breach would be impossible or ...


7

A $1 trillion liquidated damages clause would be held invalid as unconscionable and as clearly intending to punish rather than compensate... unless you can show that $1 trillion is somehow plausible, which does not seem to be what the question is asking about.


2

Not enforceable. Firstly, because there is no consideration moving from the friend (becoming of a certain age probably wouldn't count as a good consideration). Secondly, because it was a friend, and, absent evidence of the contrary (e.g. written agreement), no intention to create legal relations is presumed. If you told him you'd give him £10 by specific ...


0

Yes In a normally drafted contract, dates are inclusive. So an “expiry date” is the last date the contract was in force, expiring at 23:59:59 since midnight is actually the first moment of the next day. Most contracts don’t usually need such precision in their timekeeping but some do.


1

In the absence of any such disambiguating text, is such a contract still in force on its "expiration date"? One cannot answer in the affirmative or in the negative without assessing the contract altogether and perhaps the extrinsic evidence. If the matter is not ascertainable from elsewhere in the contract, the controversy would have to be decided ...


2

A provision in the contract that the IP is not a work-made-for-hire (WFH) might be effective. But just because something is not a WFH does not mean that the programmer owns the copyright. There are several ways for the purchaser (client) to wind up owning the copyright(s) involved. If the work qualifies as a WFH, either because the creator is in fact an ...


-1

"Work made for hire" is a legally defined term in 17 U.S. Code § 101. So when the rest of the contract describes a work arrangement which fulfills in that definition, then simply claiming that it's "not a work for hire" doesn't make it so. You can't sell a painted horse as a zebra just by calling it a zebra. However, when both parties ...


2

renting a single room with three other guys each renting their own rooms means exactly what it says. What you are paying for is that room, plus shared access to the common areas. Without knowing exactly what your lease says, especially with respect to the common areas, it's difficult to give a proper answer. I suspect that the lease for your room says ...


1

In the case my agent never did send the notice, would I still be able to cancel the purchase contract? Assuming the notice is permissible under the contract, you are entitled to cancel the contract once the deadline expires and regardless of whether the agent delivered the notice. The fact that he is agent also for the buyer is crucial for this conclusion. ...


4

In Germany is the situation as following: As already answered, if you don't pay the deposit, you can be sued. Here is a Google translation from here ("Tenant does not pay deposit - what to do?") If the tenant does not pay the deposit in whole or in part, the landlord can collect it in court. To this end, he can either file a lawsuit or apply for a ...


5

You have a contract - if you break it, you can be sued. A contract is a legally binding promise that the state (through its courts) will enforce. You promised to pay the deposit - you must pay the deposit. You promised to pay rent on a regular basis for the period of the lease - you must pay that rent. You don't want to live there? Fine, the lease probably ...


2

It depends on some other determinations. If it is determined that Robinhood has engaged in illegal market manipulation, and that they created the trading restrictions for these purposes, then no clause of their contract can allow this. Any contract to engage in an illegal behavior is void. Since the contract (the link to which can be already found in Dale'...


3

No Restrictions on Trading. I understand that Robinhood may, in its discretion, prohibit or restrict the trading of securities, or the substitution of securities, in any of My Accounts. Doing this is explicitly permitted by the contract.


3

could this mean my employer owns the idea and anything I develop --since I would use the same technology for my idea that I do at work? No, unless by "technology" you mean the employer's materials or resources (see condition 3 of the clause). Your remark that "this is completely and utterly unrelated to [employer's] business model" ...


2

A person does not renounce property rights by dying. In principle, the elder brother could have initiated a civil case to force return or other disposition of his property, but there is a statute of limitations, of three years. The elder brother's estate can also initiate such a suit. At this point, even if the case is not too old, it will be difficult to ...


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